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"My conclusion is that once again, reptile keepers are simply not a material factor when it comes to snake envenomation."
"Note: all non-native envenomations (19) were classed as “intentional”."
Could we make a somewhat stronger (if slightly narrower in scope) statement than the first quoted passage, and conclude from the second passage that no cases of envenomation by a non-native snake were unintentional, and thus no non-native envenomations occurred in an innocent bystander of any sort? That is to say, that particular data shows that non-native venomous snakes caused exactly zero harm to the general public?
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