StrictlyExotics
New member
I understand that Adam has had some personal problems. However, I don't see how that is the buyer's problem. Since Adam does not have the money to pay back all at once, I assume he spent the money. In essence, he has been loaned money for two years while the buyer waited for repayment or animals. Is it common practice to spend the money before the buyer has the animals in hand and is satisfied? I am owed $200 from a deal I made with someone else over 2 years ago. He had some personal problems too. I have had my own personal problems in that time though and could have used that money many times. I wish I had it now, but the guy just hit another rough patch and I am guessing I wont be paid at all.
In my opinion the OP deserves his money back with consideration given to the difference in exchange rates over the past 2 years, and possibly interest.
David,
You single-handedly made the most important point in this thread. The OP does deserve his money back with exchange rates and interest. But from what time point though. The only proof that I have seen in the two years that the money has left the OP was in an email dated in March 2010 stating that he would just want a refund.
I want to know what was going on from 2008 until March 2010 as to why there was no reconciliation or completed transaction. Was this on the OP, or the seller. To me, there may be other issues as to why it has taken so long for anything to happen until March 2010. For all we know, from the proof provided us in this thread, the OP might still owe the seller money to complete the transaction. I am sure that its not the case, but without proof posted here, whats the point.


Do you have another pretty word for this action?